2024.Q2 – Heavy-Tailed Sums, Truncation, and Almost Sure Convergence

2024 Probability Prelim Exam (PDF)

Problem Statement (verbatim) :contentReference[oaicite:0]{index=0}

Let $X, X_1, X_2, \ldots$ be i.i.d. sequence of positive random variables. Let $0 < \beta < 1$. Assume
\(P(X > x) \le x^{-\beta}, \quad x > 1.\)

Let ${a_n}_{n=1,2,\dots}$ be a sequence of positive real numbers that satisfies
\(\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^\beta < \infty.\)
Prove the following:

(a) $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty P(a_n X > 1) < \infty.$

(b)(i) $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty E\big(a_n X \cdot \mathbf{1}_{{a_n X < 1}}\big) < \infty.$

(b)(ii) $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty E\big(a_n^2 X^2 \cdot \mathbf{1}_{{a_n X < 1}}\big) < \infty.$

(c)
(i) $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n X_n < \infty,$ a.s.

(ii) Assume also that ${a_n}_{n=1,2,\dots}$ is non-decreasing. Prove:
\(a_n \cdot \sum_{k=1}^n X_k \longrightarrow 0, \quad \text{a.s.}\)


Part (a)

Claim.

\(\sum_{n=1}^\infty P(a_n X > 1) < \infty.\)

Proof.

For each $n$, \(P(a_n X > 1) = P\!\left(X > \frac{1}{a_n}\right).\)

We consider two cases.

  • Case 1: $a_n < 1$. Then $\frac{1}{a_n} > 1$, so we can use the tail bound: \(P\!\left(X > \frac{1}{a_n}\right) \le \left(\frac{1}{a_n}\right)^{-\beta} = a_n^\beta.\)

  • Case 2: $a_n \ge 1$. Then $\frac{1}{a_n} \le 1$, so we just use the trivial bound \(P\!\left(X > \frac{1}{a_n}\right) \le 1 \le a_n^\beta\) because $a_n^\beta \ge 1$ when $a_n \ge 1$.

In both cases, \(P(a_n X > 1) \le a_n^\beta.\) Therefore \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty P(a_n X > 1) \le \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^\beta < \infty.\)

Conclusion.

The series $\sum_n P(a_n X > 1)$ converges, controlled by the given summability of $\sum a_n^\beta$.

Key Takeaways

  • It is often useful to manipulate inside the probability first, and then apply given tail bounds.
  • Splitting into cases $a_n < 1$ and $a_n \ge 1$ lets you combine the nontrivial tail bound with the trivial inequality $P(\cdot)\le 1$.
  • The condition $\sum a_n^\beta < \infty$ not only gives summability, it also implies $a_n \to 0$.

Part (b)(i)

Claim.

\(\sum_{n=1}^\infty E\big[a_n X \,\mathbf{1}_{\{a_n X < 1\}}\big] < \infty.\)

Proof.

Let $Y_n = a_n X$. Then \(E\big[Y_n \mathbf{1}_{\{Y_n<1\}}\big] = \int_0^1 P(Y_n > t)\,dt = \int_0^1 P\!\left(X > \frac{t}{a_n}\right) dt.\)

We split the integral at $t = a_n$:

  1. Region $0 \le t \le a_n$:
    Here $\frac{t}{a_n} \le 1$, so we only know \(P\!\left(X > \frac{t}{a_n}\right) \le 1.\) Hence \(\int_0^{a_n} P\!\left(X > \frac{t}{a_n}\right) dt \le \int_0^{a_n} 1\,dt = a_n.\)

  2. Region $a_n \le t \le 1$:
    Here $\frac{t}{a_n} \ge 1$, so we can use the tail bound: \(P\!\left(X > \frac{t}{a_n}\right) \le \left(\frac{t}{a_n}\right)^{-\beta} = a_n^\beta t^{-\beta}.\) Thus \(\int_{a_n}^1 P\!\left(X > \frac{t}{a_n}\right) dt \le a_n^\beta \int_{a_n}^1 t^{-\beta} dt.\) For $0<\beta<1$, \(\int_{a_n}^1 t^{-\beta} dt = \frac{1 - a_n^{1-\beta}}{1-\beta} \le \frac{1}{1-\beta}.\) Hence \(\int_{a_n}^1 P\!\left(X > \frac{t}{a_n}\right) dt \le \frac{a_n^\beta}{1-\beta}.\)

Combining the two regions, \(E[a_n X \mathbf{1}_{\{a_nX<1\}}] \le a_n + \frac{a_n^\beta}{1-\beta}.\)

Since $\sum a_n^\beta < \infty$, we get $a_n \to 0$. So for large $n$, $a_n \le a_n^\beta$, which implies \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n < \infty \quad\text{and}\quad \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^\beta < \infty.\) Therefore $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty E[a_n X \mathbf{1}{{a_nX<1}}] \le \sum{n=1}^\infty a_n

  • \frac{1}{1-\beta} \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n^\beta < \infty. $$

Conclusion.

The series of truncated expectations $\sum_n E[a_nX\,1_{{a_nX<1}}]$ converges.

Key Takeaways

  • Use the tail-integral formula
    \(E[Y1_{\{Y<1\}}] = \int_0^1 P(Y>t)\,dt\) to turn expectations into integrals of tail probabilities.
  • Split the integral at the point where the given tail bound becomes valid.
  • The given summability $\sum a_n^\beta$ can be used twice: once directly, and once to deduce $a_n \to 0$, which helps to control $\sum a_n$.

Part (b)(ii)

Claim.

\(\sum_{n=1}^\infty E\big[a_n^2 X^2 \,\mathbf{1}_{\{a_n X < 1\}}\big] < \infty.\)

Proof.

Let $Z_n = a_n^2 X^2$. By the same tail-integral idea, \(E[Z_n \mathbf{1}_{\{Z_n<1\}}] = \int_0^1 P(Z_n > t)\,dt = \int_0^1 P\!\left(X > \frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n}\right) dt.\)

Again, split at $t=a_n^2$:

  1. Region $0 \le t \le a_n^2$:
    Here $\frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n} \le 1$, so \(P\!\left(X > \frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n}\right) \le 1 \quad\Rightarrow\quad \int_0^{a_n^2} P\!\left(X > \frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n}\right) dt \le a_n^2.\)

  2. Region $a_n^2 \le t \le 1$:
    Here $\frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n} \ge 1$, so \(P\!\left(X > \frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n}\right) \le \left(\frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n}\right)^{-\beta} = a_n^\beta t^{-\beta/2}.\) Thus \(\int_{a_n^2}^1 P\!\left(X > \frac{\sqrt{t}}{a_n}\right) dt \le a_n^\beta \int_{a_n^2}^1 t^{-\beta/2} dt.\) Since $0<\beta<2$, the integral is finite and bounded uniformly in $n$: \(\int_{a_n^2}^1 t^{-\beta/2} dt = \frac{1 - (a_n^2)^{1-\beta/2}}{1-\beta/2} \le \frac{1}{1-\beta/2}.\)

Therefore, \(E[a_n^2 X^2 \mathbf{1}_{\{a_nX<1\}}] \le a_n^2 + \frac{a_n^\beta}{1-\beta/2}.\)

As before, from $\sum a_n^\beta<\infty$ we get $a_n\to 0$, hence eventually $a_n^2 \le a_n^\beta$. So both $\sum a_n^2$ and $\sum a_n^\beta$ converge, and \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty E[a_n^2 X^2 \mathbf{1}_{\{a_nX<1\}}] < \infty.\)

Conclusion.

The series of truncated second moments $\sum_n E[a_n^2 X^2 1_{{a_nX<1}}]$ is finite.

Key Takeaways

  • The same integral-splitting trick works for higher powers.
  • The exponent $\beta < 2$ guarantees that $\int t^{-\beta/2}\,dt$ is finite near $t=0$.
  • Heavy-tail bounds combined with shrinking weights can make even second moments summable.

Part (c)(i)

Claim.

\(\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n X_n < \infty \quad \text{a.s.}\)

Proof.

We want to apply Kolmogorov’s Three-Series Theorem to the independent sequence ${a_n X_n}$. Define \(Y_n = a_n X_n.\)

The theorem says $\sum Y_n$ converges a.s. if and only if the following three series are all finite:

  1. $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty P( Y_n > 1) < \infty.$
  2. $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty E\big(Y_n \mathbf{1}_{{ Y_n \le 1}}\big) < \infty.$
  3. $\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty E\big(Y_n^2 \mathbf{1}_{{ Y_n \le 1}}\big) < \infty.$
Here $Y_n \ge 0$ (since $X_n\ge 0$), so $ Y_n = Y_n$, and $ Y_n \le1$ is the same as $Y_n<1$.
  • Condition (1) is precisely $\sum P(a_n X_n>1) < \infty$, which holds by part (a).
  • Condition (2) is $\sum E[a_n X_n \mathbf{1}_{{a_nX_n\le 1}}] < \infty$, which we proved in part (b)(i).
  • Condition (3) is $\sum E[a_n^2 X_n^2 \mathbf{1}_{{a_nX_n\le 1}}] < \infty$, which we proved in part (b)(ii).

Thus all three conditions hold. By Kolmogorov’s Three-Series Theorem, \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n X_n \quad\text{converges almost surely.}\)

Conclusion.

The weighted series $\sum a_n X_n$ converges a.s. by verifying the three-series conditions using parts (a) and (b).

Key Takeaways

  • Kolmogorov’s Three-Series Theorem is a standard tool for a.s. convergence of sums of independent (possibly heavy-tailed) random variables.
  • Parts (a), (b)(i), and (b)(ii) were all aimed at setting up its three conditions.
  • Truncation at level 1 is conventional in the theorem, but any fixed threshold would work up to constants.

Part (c)(ii)

Problem statement: “Assume also that ${a_n}_{n=1,2,\dots}$ is non-decreasing. Prove:
\(a_n \sum_{k=1}^n X_k \to 0 \quad \text{a.s.}\)”

In the standard form of the lemma we will use, one actually assumes the weights are non-increasing and tend to $0$. This is how the official solution proceeds. So we implicitly use that condition (and you correctly noticed this issue in your reflection). :contentReference[oaicite:1]{index=1}

Claim.

Suppose ${a_n}$ is non-increasing with $a_n \to 0$, and $\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n X_n$ converges a.s. Then \(a_n \sum_{k=1}^n X_k \longrightarrow 0 \quad \text{a.s.}\)

Proof. (Kronecker’s lemma)

Let $b_n = a_n$, and define \(S_n = \sum_{k=1}^n X_k.\)

We know from part (c)(i) that \(\sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n X_n = \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n X_n\) converges a.s.

A standard version of Kronecker’s Lemma states:

If ${b_n}$ is a non-increasing sequence of positive numbers with $b_n \to 0$, and $\sum b_n x_n$ converges, then \(b_n \sum_{k=1}^n x_k \to 0.\)

Apply this lemma with $x_k = X_k$ and $b_n = a_n$. Since the weighted sum converges a.s. and $a_n \downarrow 0$, we obtain \(a_n S_n \to 0 \quad \text{a.s.}\)

Conclusion.

Under the usual monotone-decreasing assumption on the weights, convergence of $\sum a_n X_n$ implies that the scaled partial sums $a_n \sum_{k=1}^n X_k$ vanish a.s.

Key Takeaways

  • Kronecker’s Lemma allows you to go from

    “$\sum a_n X_n$ converges” to
    “$a_n \sum_{k=1}^n X_k \to 0$”
    when ${a_n}$ is decreasing and $a_n \to 0$.

  • In problems like this, if you see both:
    • a convergent weighted sum $\sum a_n X_n$, and
    • a question about scaled partial sums $a_n S_n$,
      you should immediately think of Kronecker’s Lemma.
  • It is important to check the monotonicity direction: Kronecker’s Lemma is usually stated for non-increasing weights that tend to zero.

Global Key Takeaways for Question 2

  • Heavy-tail bounds like $P(X>x)\le x^{-\beta}$ plus a summability condition on weights ${a_n}$ are a classic setup for:
    • controlling tail probabilities $\sum P(a_nX>1)$,
    • controlling truncated expectations via tail integrals,
    • applying Kolmogorov’s Three-Series Theorem.
  • Integral representation of expectations (tail integrals) is extremely powerful for bounding $E[g(X)]$ when we are given information about tail probabilities $P(X>x)$.
  • Once you show that the weighted sum $\sum a_n X_n$ converges a.s., Kronecker’s Lemma is the right tool to deduce that the scaled partial sums vanish.
  • This problem is an archetype of how to handle:
    • heavy-tailed variables,
    • truncation + summability,
    • three-series theorem,
    • and Kronecker’s lemma in one coherent package.

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